Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2009 – reasoning paper

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2009

(Held on 13-12-2009)

Reasoning : Solved Paper

1. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘$@2*©’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘β64@%’. How is ‘DELAY’ written in that code ?
(A) β4*2%
(B) β4@2%
(C) %42@β
(D) %4@2β
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)

3. D said, “A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son.” How is A’s father related to D ?
(A) Cousin
(B) Nephew
(C) Aunt
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 4–6) The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below—
394 632 783 576 895

4. If the positions of the first and the second digit within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 632
(B) 783
(C) 576
(D) 895
(E) 394
Ans : (E)

5. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which of the following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3 ?
(A) 895
(B) 394
(C) 576
(D) 632
(E) 783
Ans : (A)

6. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the highest number ?
(A) 576
(B) 895
(C) 783
(D) 394
(E) 632
Ans : (A)

7. If ‘A’ is coded as 1, ‘B’ as 3, ‘C’ as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’ ?
(A) 81
(B) 79
(C) 77
(D) 80
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as FAN : HEAT ?
(A) Water : Drink
(B) Light : Night
(C) Teach : Student
(D) Air : Breathe
(E) Food : Hunger
Ans : (B)

9. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V.T types faster than R S types faster than V. Who amongst the fiveof them types the fastest ?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) S
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. If ‘B ×C’ means ‘B, is the daughter of C’, ‘B + C’ means ‘B is the husband of C’ and ‘B – C’ means ‘B is the sister of C’, then what does ‘M + N – P ×Q’ mean ?
(A) M is the brother-in-law of Q
(B) M is the uncle of Q
(C) M is the son-in-law of Q
(D) M is the mother-in-law of Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–17) Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it—
A group of seven friends, A, B, C, D, E, F and G work as Economist, Agriculture Officer, IT Officer, Terminal Operator, Clerk, Forex Officer and Research Analyst, for Banks L, M, N; P, Q, R and S but not necessarily in the same order. C works for Bank N and is neither a Research Analyst nor a Clerk. E is an IT Officer and works for Bank R. A works as Forex Officer and does not work for Bank L or Q. The one who is an Agriculture Officer works for Bank M. The one who works for Bank L works as a Terminal Operator. F works for Bank Q. G works for Bank P as a Research Analyst. D is not an Agriculture Officer.

11. Who amongst the following works as an Agriculture Officer ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. What is the profession of C ?
(A) Terminal operator
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Economist
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. For which Bank does B work ?
(A) M
(B) S
(C) L
(D) Either M or S
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. What is the profession of the person who works for Bank S ?
(A) Clerk
(B) Agriculture Officer
(C) Terminal Operator
(D) Forex Officer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

15. For which Bank does D work ?
(A) Q
(B) L
(C) N
(D) S
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following works as a Clerk ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) F
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following combinations of person, profession and bank is correct ?
(A) A-Forex Officer-M
(B) D-Clerk-L
(C) F-Agriculture Officer-Q
(D) B-Agriculture Officer-S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 18–23) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements :Some stones are rocks.
All rocks are boulders.
Some boulders are mountains.
All hills are mountains.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are mountains.
II. Some hills are boulders.
III. Some boulders are stones.
IV. All mountains are hills.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

19. Statements :
All arrows are bows.
All bows are swords.
Some swords are daggers.
All daggers are knives.
Conclusions :
I. All knives are bows.
II. Some swords are knives.
III. All bows are arrows.
IV. All arrows are swords.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. Statements :Some pianos are violins.
Some violins are drums.
All drums are guitars.
No guitar is a flute.
Conclusions :I. Some guitar are pianos.
II. Some drums are flutes.
III. Some pianos are drums.
IV. No flute is a drum.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only either II or IV follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Statements :Some airplane are helicopters.
All helicopters are gliders.
All gliders are kites.
All kites are balloons.
Conclusions :I. Some helicopters are balloons.
II. All kites are airplanes.
III. All balloons are gliders.
IV. All helicopters are kites.
(A) Only IV follows
(B) Only either II or III follow
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Statements :
All kings are warriors.
All soldiers are warriors.
All sentries are warriors.
Some sentries are soldiers.
Conclusions :I. Some sentries are kings.
II. All warriors are soldiers.
III. Some warriors are sentries.
IV. Some soldiers are kings.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

23. Statements :All plastics are glasses.
Some glasses are wood.
Some woods are metals.
All metals are cloths.
Conclusions :I. Some cloths are wood.
II. Some woods are both cloths and glasses.
III. Some glasses are plastics.
IV. Some cloths are metals.
(A) None follows
(B) All follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 24–25) Read the information given below carefully and then answer the questions that follow. In a certain code language :
I. ‘she likes apples’ is written as ‘pic sip dip’.
II. ‘parrot likes apples lots’ is written as ‘dip pic tif nit’.
III. ‘she likes parrots’ is written as ‘tif sip dip’.

24. How is ‘parrot’ written in that code language ?
(A) pic
(B) dip
(C) tif
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following statements is not necessary in order to answer the above question ?
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) All are required
(E) Either II or III
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
S M P 6 3 * $ A 4 L N @ Z 5 # V U 7 E 8 B % T Y X G 2 I & 9 W

26. Which of the following is the third to the left of the fifteenth from the left end ?
(A) @
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) U
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by an even number and preceded by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (A)

28. What should come in place of the question-mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P M 3 A $ L Z @ # ?
(A) U V E
(B) V # E
(C) 7 U 8
(D) V 7 #
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) A 4 *
(B) T B Y
(C) 9 I W
(D) V 5 U
(E) P S 6
Ans : (A)

30. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer—
(A) if statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) if statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statement I and II are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) if both statement I and II are effects of some common cause.

31. I. The government has amended tax laws to boost exports.
II. The export sector has been passing through difficult times due to heavy tax burdens.
Ans : (B)

32. I. Budgetary allocation for building a better railway network e.g. constructing new railway lines has increased.
II. There has been a substantial drop in the number of passenger opting for air travel.
Ans : (D)

33. I. The production of pulses has dropped for the third consecutive year.
II. India has decided to import pulses this year.
Ans : (A)

34. I. The Bank has provided a link on its website to obtain feed-back from customers.
II. Customers have been complaining about poor services in the Bank’s branches.
Ans : (B)

35. I. Indian citizens are willing to incur the cost of using environment friendly technology.
II. Many countries are taking steps to cut their carbon emissions.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below is given a passange followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of
the passage and decide upon the degree of its truth or falsity. Mark answer—
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it properly follows from the statements of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) if the ‘data are inadequate’ i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the data is likely to be true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot be drawn from the given facts or contradicts the given facts.
The pace of recruitment has unmistakably picked up in the last few months. After two abysmal quarters the business sentiment has turned positive. A flurry of hiring activity has been observed across the manufacturing sector and the IT and ITES sector catering to telecom and legal process outsourcing. The advent of new players and an aggressive expansion of telecom giants has seen a bullish outlook for the industry with a promise of exponential growth. But is the worst over for businesses across the spectrum ? Firms are going back to the drawing board and dusting off their plans to see if there is scope for atleast incremental hiring in specific domains where they want to build expertise. Besides that there are few signs to show that there is a broad based revival in the market.

36. Companies in various sectors have projected higher business growth in the near future.
Ans : (B)

37. The telecom sector has experienced negative growth in the past few years.
Ans : (D)

38. Many companies in the manufacturing sector have decided to reduce their fresh intake of employees.
Ans : (C)

39. Persons with legal qualifications and expertise will earn more in the future.
Ans : (C)

40. Most companies across sectors have decided to increase their manpower requirement manifold.
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the coding system and mark the letter of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as
your answer.
Letter :
T A G R S D N E V U X P
Digit/Symbol Code :
@ 4 9 # % 3 ©5 1 β7 6
Conditions—(i) if the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel only the first letter may be coded and no code
may be given to the last letter.
(ii) if both the first and last letters are vowels then both are to be coded as $.
(iii) if the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant then the codes are to be interchanged.

41. DESGRT
(A) 35%9#
(B) 35%9#@
(C) @5%9#3
(D) 359%#@
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. NERSPU
(A) @5#%6@
(B) @5#56©
(C) ©5#%6
(D) ©5#%6β
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

43. XNTPGA
(A) 7©@694
(B) 7©@964
(C) 4©@69
(D) 7©@69
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. ESVNTU
(A) $%1©@$
(B) 5%1©@β
(C) $%1©@β
(D) $%1©β 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. UXPTGN
(A) ©76@9β
(B) $76@9©
(C) β 76@9©
(D) β 76@9B
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing. Given answer—
(A) if only Course of action I follows.
(B) if only Course of action II follows.
(C) if either Course of action I or Course of action II follows.
(D) if neither Course of action I nor Course of action II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.

46. Statement : An increasing number of graduates produced by Indian universities are unemployable.
Courses of action :I. Colleges and Institutes of higher learning should be given greater autonomy to decide course content.
II. World class foreign universities should be encouraged to set up campuses in India.
Ans : (A)

47. Statement : Heavy rains hit the state during October, just before the State Assembly elections and caused heavy damage to standing crops in most parts of the state.
Courses of action :I. Elections should be postponed to give candidates the opportunity to campaign.
II. The Government should announce a relief package for those who are affected.
Ans : (B)

48. Statement : Cell phone users have found that tariff plans are not as attractive as promoted by telecome companies and complained to regulatory authority about the same.
Courses of action :I. The regulatory authority should direct telecome companies to be transparent on the tariff structure of all plans.
II. The government should restrict the number of telecome companies operating in the country.
Ans : (A)

49. Statement : A number of school children in the local schools have fallen ill after the consumption of their subsidised tiffin provided by the school authority.
Courses of action :I. The tiffin facility of all schools should be discontinued with immediate effect.
II. The government should implement a system to certify the quality of tiffin provided by the school.
Ans : (B)

50. Statement : The dolphin population in India has been decreasing sharply over the past few years.
Courses of action :
I. Dolphins should be declared an endangered species and be bred in aquariums or protected areas.
II. Locals should be enlisted to protect dolphins.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow :
A Research Institute is recruiting a libration to digitise its information resources among other duties. Candidates must possess the following criteria. The candidate must :
I. be not less than 35 years and not exceed 40 years as on 01- 11-2009.
II. have a Bachelor’s Degree in Library and Information Science with 65 per cent marks.
III. have a Ph.D. in Library Science.
IV. have post qualification experience of at least 4 years in a University Library.
However if the candidate fulfils the above mentioned criteria except—
(a) at (II) above but the candidates has a UGC NET certification with all the other above criteria fulfilled he/she may be referred to the Dean.
(b) at (IV) above but all the eligibility criteria are met and the candidate has at least one year’s experience in a research institute he/ she may be offered contractual appointment for a year.
Based on the above criteria study carefully whether the following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All cases are given to you as on 1-11-2009.
Mark answer :
(A) if he/she is to be shortlisted.
(B) if he/she is not to be shortlisted.
(C) if he/she should be referred to the Dean.
(D) if he/she may be offered contractual appointment if required.
(E) if the data provided is inadequate to take a decision.

51. Anil Rath has a doctorate in Library Science from Karnataka University in 2003. Born on July 21, 1969, he graduated in Library and Information Science from Karnataka University where he was Assistant Librarian for four years since 2005.
Ans : (B)

52. Dr. Samir Bali has a Ph.D. in Library Science and has been with the Institute of Fundamental Research as Assistant Librarian since October 2008. He graduated with a degree in Library and Information Science in 1994 at the age of 22. He obtained 70 per cent in his graduation.
Ans : (D)

53. Vaishali Shetty has a librarian at STS University since 2007 when she qualified in the UGC NET examination. She has a degree in Library and Information Science with 60 per cent. Her first job was as junior librarian at TRP Institute of Development Research from October 2000 to December 2001.
Ans : (B)

54. Vivek Jha has a Ph.D. in Library and Information Science. He graduated in Library and Information Science in 1992 with 65 per cent. He was born on 1-10- 1974. Since July 2005, he has been working as Deputy Librarian at a deemed University.
Ans : (A)

55. A graduate in Library Science with 69 per cent Dr. M. Puri has been working at Ranchi University for 4 years as Deputy Librarian. She earned her doctorate while working for the Labour Research Institute for 5 years as Assistant Librarian. She is 38 years old as on the required date.
Ans : (A)

56. Megha Vaidya has a graduate degree in Library Science from Punjab University where she has been a librarian for the past 5 years. In 2002 she obtained her UGC NET qualification at the age of 29. She obtained 72 per cent graduation.
Ans : (E)

57. Anup Gupta is obtaining his Ph.D. from YCM University where he has been Junior Librarian since 2004. He qualified in the UGC NET exam. in June, 2000. He has a degree in Library and Information Science with 62 per cent. His date of birth is 17-10-1973.
Ans : (B)

58. Kirti Shukla obtained her doctorate and Bachelor’s degree from Patna University. She obtained 63 per cent at graduation. She obtained her UGC NET qualification in 1998 when she was 26.
Ans : (E)

59. Prakash Sinha has been a librarian for a government institution for three years. Prior to this he was a University Librarian for 7 years after completing his Ph.D. in Library Science. He graduated in 1991 with 68 per cent in Library Science. He is exactly 40 years of age on the specified date.
Ans : (A)

60. Rohan Sachdev obtained his UGC NET qualification after his graduation in 1998 when he began working. He has been Assistant Librarian for the past two years with a research instiute. He obtained 65 per cent in his graduation in Library Science. He earned his Ph.D. in Library Science in 2007. His date of birth is 22-10-1974.
Ans : (D)

Sociology Syllabus for Main Examination

Paper-I

General Sociology/Foundations of Sociology/Fundamentals of Sociology

1. Sociology - The Discipline:

(a) Modernity and social changes in Europe and emergence of sociology.

(b) Scope of the subject and comparison with other social sciences.

(c) Sociology and common sense.

2. Sociology as Science:

(a) Science, scientific method and critique.

(b) Major theoretical strands of research methodology.

(c) Positivism and its critique.

(d) Fact value and objectivity.

(e) Non- positivist methodologies.

3. Research Methods and Analysis:

(a) Qualitative and quantitative methods.

(b) Techniques of data collection.

(c) Variables, sampling, hypothesis, reliability and validity.

4. Sociological Thinkers:

(a) Karl Marx- Historical materialism, mode of production, alienation, class struggle.

(b) Emile Durkheim- Division of labour, social fact, suicide, religion and society.

(c) Max Weber- Social action, ideal types, authority, bureaucracy, protestant ethic and the spirit of capitalism.

(d) Talcolt Parsons- Social system, pattern variables.

(e) Robert K. Merton- Latent and manifest functions, conformity and deviance, reference groups

(f) Mead - Self and identity.

5. Stratification and Mobility:

(a) Concepts- equality, inequality, hierarchy, exclusion, poverty and deprivation

(b) Theories of social stratification- Structural functionalist theory, Marxist theory, Weberian theory.

(c) Dimensions - Social stratification of class, status groups, gender, ethnicity and race.

(d) Social mobility- open and closed systems, types of mobility, sources and causes of mobility.

6. Works and Economic Life:

(a) Social organization of work in different types of society- slave society, feudal society, industrial /capitalist society.

(b) Formal and informal organization of work

(c) Labour and society.

7. Politics and Society:

(a) Sociological theories of power

(b) Power elite, bureaucracy, pressure groups, and political parties.

(c) Nation, state, citizenship, democracy, civil society, ideology.

(d) Protest, agitation, social movements, collective action, revolution.

8. Religion and Society:

(a) Sociological theories of religion.

(b) Types of religious practices: animism, monism, pluralism, sects, cults.

(c) Religion in modern society: religion and science, secularization, religious revivalism, fundamentalism.

9. Systems of Kinship:

(a) Family, household, marriage.

(b) Types and forms of family.

(c) Lineage and descent

(d) Patriarchy and sexual division of labour

(e) Contemporary trends.

10. Social Change in Modern Society:

(a) Sociological theories of social change.

(b) Development and dependency.

(c) Agents of social change.

(d) Education and social change.

(e) Science, technology and social change.

Paper-II

INDIAN SOCIETY : STRUCTURE AND CHANGE

A. Introducing Indian Society:

(i) Perspectives on the study of Indian society:

(a) Indology (GS. Ghurye).

(b) Structural functionalism (M N Srinivas).

(c) Marxist sociology ( A R Desai).

(ii) Impact of colonial rule on Indian society :

(a) Social background of Indian nationalism.

(b) Modernization of Indian tradition.

(c) Protests and movements during the colonial period.

(d) Social reforms

B. Social Structure:

(i) Rural and Agrarian Social Structure:

(a) The idea of Indian village and village studies-

(b) Agrarian social structure -

evolution of land tenure system,

land reforms.

(ii) Caste System:

(a) Perspectives on the study of caste systems: GS Ghurye, M N Srinivas, Louis Dumont, Andre Beteille.

(b) Features of caste system.

(c) Untouchability - forms and perspectives

(iii) Tribal communities in India:

(a) Definitional problems.

(b) Geographical spread.

(c) Colonial policies and tribes.

(d) Issues of integration and autonomy.

(iv) Social Classes in India:

(a) Agrarian class structure.

(b) Industrial class structure.

(c) Middle classes in India.

(v) Systems of Kinship in India:

(a) Lineage and descent in India.

(b) Types of kinship systems.

(c) Family and marriage in India.

(d) Household dimensions of the family.

(e) Patriarchy, entitlements and sexual division of labour.

(vi) Religion and Society:

(a) Religious communities in India.

(b) Problems of religious minorities.

C. Social Changes in India:

(i) Visions of Social Change in India:

(a) Idea of development planning and mixed economy.

(b) Constitution, law and social change.

(c) Education and social change.

(ii) Rural and Agrarian transformation in India:

(a) Programmes of rural development, Community Development Programme, cooperatives, poverty alleviation schemes.

(b) Green revolution and social change.

(c) Changing modes of production in Indian agriculture .

(d) Problems of rural labour, bondage, migration.

(iii) Industrialization and Urbanisation in India:

(a) Evolution of modern industry in India.

(b) Growth of urban settlements in India.

(c) Working class: structure, growth, class mobilization.

(d) Informal sector, child labour

(e) Slums and deprivation in urban areas.

(iv) Politics and Society:

(a) Nation, democracy and citizenship.

(b) Political parties, pressure groups , social and political elite.

(c) Regionalism and decentralization of power.

(d) Secularization

(v) Social Movements in Modern India:

(a) Peasants and farmers movements.

(b) Women's movement.

(c) Backward classes & Dalit movement.

(d) Environmental movements.

(e) Ethnicity and Identity movements.

(vi) Population Dynamics:

(a) Population size, growth, composition and distribution.

(b) Components of population growth: birth, death, migration.

(c) Population policy and family planning.

(d) Emerging issues: ageing, sex ratios, child and infant mortality, reproductive health.

(vii) Challenges of Social Transformation:

(a) Crisis of development: displacement, environmental problems and sustainability.

(b) Poverty, deprivation and inequalities.

(c) Violence against women.

(d) Caste conflicts.

(e) Ethnic conflicts, communalism, religious revivalism.

(f) Illiteracy and disparities in education.

UPSC Prelims 2011 - Question - Answers - Aptitude (CSAT)

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:



Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.



Passage- 1



For achieving inclusive growth there is a critical need to rethink the role of the state. The early debate among economists about the size of the Government can be misleading. The need of the hour is to have an enabling Government. India is too large and complex a nation for the State to be able to deliver all that is needed. Asking the Government to produce all the essential goods, create all the necessary jobs, and keep a curb on the prices of all goods is to lead to a large cumbersome bureaucracy and widespread corruption.



The aim must be to stay with the objective of inclusive growth that was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation and also to take a more modern view of what the State can realistically deliver #



This is what leads to the idea of an enabling State, that is, a Government that does not try to directly deliver to the citizens everything that they need. Instead, it (1) creates an enabling ethos for the market so that individual enterprise can flourish and citizens can, for the most part, provide for the needs of one another, and (2) steps in to help those who do not manage to do well for themselves, for there will always be individuals, no matter what the system, who need support and help. Hence we need a Government that, when it comes to the market, sets effective, incentive –compatible rules and remains on the sidelines with minimal interference, and, at the same time, play an important role in directly helping the poor by ensuring that they get basic education and health services and receive adequate nutrition and food.



1. According to the passage



1. The objective of inclusive growth was laid down by the founding fathers of the nation



2. Need of the hour is to have an enabling government



3. The government should engage in maximum interference in market processes.



4. There is a need to change the size of the government



Which of the statements given above are correct?



(a) 1 and 2 only



(b) 2 and 3 only



(c) 1 and 4 only



(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4



Answer: A



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2. According to the passage, the strategy of inclusive growth can be affected by focusing on



a) Meeting all the needs of every citizen in the country



b) Increasing the regulations over the manufacturing sector



c) Controlling the distribution of manufactured goods



d) Delivery of the basic services to the deprived sections of the society



Answer: D



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3. What constitutes an enabling Government?



1. A large bureaucracy



2. Implementation of welfare programmes through representatives



3. Creating an ethos that helps individual enterprise



4. Providing resources to those who are under privileged



5. Offering direct help to the poor regarding basic services



Select the correct answer from the codes given below:



a) 1, 2 and 3 only



b) 4 and 5 only



c) 3, 4 and 5 only



d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5



Answer: C



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4. Why is the state unable to deliver “All that is needed”?



1. It does not have sufficient bureaucracy



2. It done not promote inclusive growth



Select the correct answer from the codes given below:



a) 1 only



b) 2 only



c) Both 1 and 2



d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: A



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5. What is the essential message being conveyed by the author of the passage?



a) The objectives of inclusive growth laid down by the founding fathers of the nation should be remembered



b) The government needs to make available more schools and health services



c) The government needs to establish markets and industries to meet the needs of the poor strata of the society



d) There is a need to rethink the role of the state in achieving inclusive growth



Answer: D



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Passage - 2



The concept of “Creative Society” refers to a phase of development of a society in which a large number of potential contradictions become articulate and active. This is most evident when oppressed social groups get politically mobilized and demand their rights. The upsurge of the peasants and tribal’s, the movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements for regional autonomy and self-determination, the environmental movements, and the women’s movements in the developing countries are signs of emergence of creative society in contemporary times. The forms of social movements and their intensity may vary from country to country and place to place within a country. But the very presence of movements for social transformation in various spheres of a society indicates the emergence of a creative society in a country







6. What does the author imply by “Creative Society?”



1. A society where diverse art forms and literary writings seek incentive



2. A society where social inequalities are accepted as the norm



3. A society where a large number of contradictions are recognized.



4. A society where the exploited and the oppressed groups grow conscious of their human rights and upliftment.



Select the correct answer using the codes given below:



a) 1, 2 and 3



b) 4 only



c) 3 and 4



d) 2 and 4



Answer: C



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7. What according to the passage are the manifestations of social movements?



1. Aggressiveness and being incendiary



2. Instigation by external forces



3. Quest for social equality and individual freedom



4. Urge for granting privileges and self-respect to disparaged sections of the society



Select the correct answer using the codes given below:



(a) 1 And 3 only



(b) 2 and 4 only



(c) 3 and 4 only



(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4



Answer: C



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8. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements



1. To be a creative society, it is essential to have a variety of social movements



2. To be a creative society, it is imperative to have potential contradictions and conflicts



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 only



(c) Both 1 and 2



(d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: A



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9. Consider the following three statements



1. Only students can participate in the race



2. Some participants in the race are girls



3. All girl participants in the race are invited for coaching



Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?



(a) All participants in the race are invited for coaching



(b) All students are invited for coaching



(c) All participants in the race are students



(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct



Answer: C



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Directions for the following 2 (two) items:



Each of the following two items consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below each set of statements:



10. Examine the following statements:



1. All animal are carnivorous



2. Some animals are not carnivorous



3. Animals are not carnivorous



4. Some animals are carnivorous



Codes:



(a) 1 and 3



(b) 1 and 2



(c) 2 and 3



(d) 3 and 4



Answer: A



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11. Examine the following statements:



1. All trains are run by diesel engine.



2. Some trains are run by diesel engine



3. No train is run by diesel engine



4. Some trains are not run by diesel engine



Codes:



(a) 1 and 2



(b) 2 and 3



(c) 1 and 3



(d) 1 and 4



Answer: C



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12. Consider the four age pyramids given below namely A, B, C and D representing four different countries.









Which one of them indicates the declining population?



(a) A



(b) B



(c) C



(d) D



Answer: C



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13. The following figure has four curves namely A, B, C and D. Study the figure and answer the item that follows







Which curve indicates the exponential growth?



(a) A



(b) B



(c) C



(d) D



Answer: C



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Directions for the following 2 (two) items: The following pie charts show the break-up of disease categories recorded in the patients from two towns, Town A and Town B. Pie charts plot the disease categories as percentage of the total number of patients. Based on these, answer the town items that follow the charts













14. Which of the tow towns has a higher number of persons with Diabetes?



(a) Town A



(b) Town B



(c) Same in Town A and Town B



(d) No inference can be drawn



Answer: D



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15. What can we say about persons with more than one disease from these graphs?



(a) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town A



(b) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in Town B



(c) There are likely to be persons with more than one disease in both Towns A and B



(d) No inference can be drawn



Answer: B



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16. Consider the following Velocity – Time Graph. It shows two trains starting simultaneously on parallel tracks.









With reference to the above graph, which one of the following statements is not correct?



(a) Train B has an initial acceleration greater than that of Train A



(b) Train B is faster than Train A at all times



(c) Both trains have the same velocity at time t0



(d) Both trains travel the same distance in time t0 units



Answer: D



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Directions for the following 6 (six) items:



Read each of the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only



Passage – I



Ecosystems Provide people with a variety of goods and services; food, clean water, clean air, flood control, soil stabilization, pollination, climate regulation, spiritual fulfilment and aesthetic enjoyment, to name just a few. Most of these benefits either are irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive. For example, potable fresh water can be provided by desalinating seawater, but only at great cost.



The rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the Earth’s ecosystems to meet their increased requirements of some of the goods and services, particularly food, fresh water, timber, fibre and fuel. These modifications have contributed substantially to human well being and economic development. The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes. Moreover, short-term increases in some ecosystem goods and services have come at the cost of the long-term degradation of others. For example, efforts to increase the production of food and fibre have decreased the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity.



17. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements



Expanding human population has an adverse effect on:



1. Spiritual fulfilment



2. Aesthetic enjoyment



3. Potable fresh water



4. Production of food and fibre



5. Biodiversity



Which of the statements given above are correct?



(a) 1, 2 and 3 only



(b) 2, 4 and 5 only



(c) 3 and 5 only



(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5



Answer: C



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18. The passage mentions that “Some people have actually been harmed by these changes”. What does it imply?



1. The rapid expansion of population has adversely affected some people



2. Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre



3. In the short term some people may be harmed, but in the long term everyone will benefit from modifications in the Earth’s ecosystems



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2



(c) 1 and 3



(d) None of the statements given above



Answer: A



-----------



19. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:



1. It is imperative to modify the Earth’s ecosystems for the well being of mankind



2. Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 only



(c) Both 1 and 2



(d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: B



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Passage - 2



A moral act must be our own act; must spring from our own will. If we act mechanically, there is no moral content in our act. Such action would be moral, if we think it proper to act like a machine and do so. For, in doing so, we use our discrimination. We should bear in mind the distinction between acting mechanically and acting intentionally. It may be moral of a king to pardon a culprit. But the messenger carrying out the order of pardon plays only a mechanical part in the king’s moral act. But if the messenger were to carry out the king’s order considering it to be his duty, his action would be a moral one. How can a man understand morality that does not use his own intelligence and power of thought, but let’s himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current? Sometimes a man defies convention and acts on his own with a view to absolute good



20. Which of the following statements best describe/describes the thought of the writer?



1. A moral act calls for using our discretion.



2. Man should react to a situation immediately.



3. Man must do his duty.



4. Man should be able to defy convention in order to be moral.



Select the correct answer from the codes given below:



(a) 1 only



(b) 1 and 3



(c) 2 and 3



(d) 1 and 4



Answer: D



-----------



21. Which of the following statements is the nearest definition of moral action, according to the writer?



(a) It is a mechanical action based on official orders from superiors.



(b) It is a based on our sense of discretion.



(c) It is a clever action based on the clarity of purpose.



(d) It is a religious action based on understanding.



Answer: B



-----------



22. The passage contains a statement “let’s himself be swept along like a log of wood by a current”. Among the following statements, which is/are nearest in meaning to this?



1. A person does not use his own reason.



2. He is susceptible to influence/pressure.



3. He cannot withstand difficulties/challenges.



4. He is like a log of wood.



Select the correct answer using the codes given below:



(a) 1 only



(b) 1 and 2



(c) 2 and 3



(d) 1 and 4



Answer: B



-----------



23. Consider the following distance – time graph. The graph shows three athletes A, B and C running side by side for a 30 km race.









With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements :



1. The race was won by A.



2. B was ahead of A up to 25 km mark.



3. C ran very slowly from the beginning.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 1 and 2 only



(c) 2 and 3 only



(d) 1, 2 and 3



Answer: B



-----------



24. Consider the following figures









What is the mission number?



(a) 7



(b) 8



(c) 9



(d) 10



Answer: C



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25. Study the following figure: A person goes from A to B always moving to the right or downwards along the lines. How many different routes can he adopt?









Select the correct answer from the codes given below:



(a) 4



(b) 5



(c) 6



(d) 7



Answer: c



-----------



26. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:









What is the total number of triangles in the above grid?



(a) 27



(b) 26



(c) 23



(d) 22



Answer: C



-----------



Directions for the following 4 (four) items:



Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.



Passage



A country under foreign domination seeks escape from the present in dreams of a vanished age, and finds consolation in visions of past greatness. That is a foolish and dangerous pastime in which many of us indulge. An equally questionable practice for us in India is to imagine that we are still spiritually great though we have come down in the world in other respects. Spiritual or any of the greatness cannot be founded on lack of freedom and opportunity, or on starvation and misery. Many western writers have encouraged that notion that Indians are other-worldly. I suppose the poor and unfortunate in every country become to some extent other-worldly, unless they become revolutionaries, for this world is evidently not meant for them. So also subjects peoples.



As a man grows to maturity he is not entirely engrossed in, or satisfied with, the external objective world. He seeks also some inner meaning, some psychological and physical satisfactions. So also with peoples and civilizations as they mature and grow adult. Every civilization and every people exhibit these parallel streams of an external life and an internal life. Where they meet or keep close to each other, there is an equilibrium and stability



When they diverge conflict arises and the crises that torture the mind and spirit.



27. The passage mentions that “this world evidently not meant for them”. It refers people who



1. Seek freedom from foreign domination.



2. Live in starvation and misery.



3. Become revolutionaries.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 and 2



(b) 2 only



(c) 2 and 3



(d) 3 only



Answer: B



-----------



28. Consider the following assumptions



1. A country under foreign domination cannot indulge in spiritual pursuit.



2. Poverty is an impediment in the spiritual pursuit.



3. Subject peoples may become otherworldly.



With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?



(a) 1 and 2



(b) 2 only



(c) 2 and 3



(d) 3 only



Answer: D



-----------



29. The passage thematically centres on



(a) The state of mind of oppressed people.



(b) Starvation and misery



(c) The growth of civilization.



(d) Body, mind and spirit of people in general.



Answer: A



-----------



30. According to the passage, the torture of the mind and spirit is caused



(a) By the impact of foreign domination.



(b) By the desire to escape from foreign domination and find consolation in visions of past greatness.



(c) Due to lack of equilibrium between an external life and an internal life.



(d) Due to one’s inability to be either revolutionary or other-worldly#



Answer: C



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Directions for the following 3 (three) items:



Read the passage given below, study the graph that follows and answer the three items given below the figure



During a party, a person was exposed to contaminated water. A few days later, he developed fever and loose motions. He suffered for some days before going to a doctor for treatment. On starting the treatment, he soon became better and recovered completely a few days later. The following graph shows different phases of the person’s disease condition as regions A, B, C, D and E of the curve.









31. Which region/regions of the curve correspond/corresponds to incubation phase of the infection?



(a) A only



(b) B only



(c) B and C



(d) No part of the curve indicates the incubation phase.



Answer: A



-----------



32. Which region of the curve indicates that the person began showing the symptoms of infection?



(a) A



(b) B



(c) C



(d) D



Answer: B



-----------



33. Which region of the curve indicates that the treatment yielded effective relief?



(a) C



(b) D



(c) E



(d) The curve does not indicate the treatment



Answer: C



-----------



34. There are four routes to travel from city A to city B and six routes from city B to city C.



How many routes are possible to travel from the city A to city C?



(a) 24



(b) 12



(c) 10



(d) 8



Answer: A



-----------



35. A contract on construction job specifies a penalty for delay in completion of the work beyond a certain date is as follows: Rs.200 for the first day, Rs.250 for the second day, Rs.300 for the third day etc., the penalty for each succeeding day being Rs.50 more than that of the preceding day. How much penalty should the contractor pay if he delays the work by 10 days?



(a) Rs. 4950



(b) Rs. 4250



(c) Rs. 3600



(d) Rs. 650



Answer: B



-----------



36. Consider the figure given below and answer the item that follows:









In the figure shown above, OP1 and OP2 are two plane mirrors kept perpendicular to each other. S is the direction of a beam of light falling on the mirror OP1. The direction of the reflected beam of light from the mirror OP2 will be



(a) Perpendicular to the direction S.



(b) At 45o to the direction S.



(c) Opposite and parallel to the direction S.



(d) At 60o to the direction S.



Answer: C



-----------



37. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:







What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the figure given above such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour?



(a) 3



(b) 4



(c) 5



(d) 6



Answer: A



-----------



38. Consider the following figure and answer the item that follows:









A square is divided into four rectangles as shown above. The lengths of the side of rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure.



What is the length of each side of the square?



(a) 10



(b) 11



(c) 15



(d) Cannot be determined as the given data are insufficient.



Answer: B



-----------



39. A person has only Rs.1 and Rs.2 coins with her. If the total number of coins that she has is 50 and the amount of money with her is Rs.75, then the numbers of Rs.1 and Rs.2 coins are, respectively



(a) 15 and 35



(b) 35 and 15



(c) 30 and 20



(d) 25 and 25



Answer: D



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40. Three persons start walking together and their steps measure 40 cm, 42 cm and 45 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should walk so that each can cover the same distance in complete steps?



(a) 25 m 20 cm



(b) 50 m 40 cm



(c) 75 m 60 cm



(d) 100 m 80 cm



Answer: A



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41. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds, then what is the ratio of the distances travelled by them in one hour?



(a) 8 : 5



(b) 5 : 8



(c) 4: 5



(d) 1 : 2



Answer: B



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42. There are 100 students in a particular class. 60% students play cricket, 30% student play football and 10% students play both the games. What is the number of students who play neither cricket nor football?



(a) 25



(b) 20



(c) 18



(d) 15



Answer: B



-----------



43. A village having a population of 4000 requires 150 litres of water per head per day. It has a tank measuring 20 m x 15 m x 6 m. the water of this tank will last for



(a) 2 days



(b) 3 days



(c) 4 days



(d) 5 days



Answer: B



-----------



Directions for the following 4 (four) items:



Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.



Passage



A species that exerts an influence out of proportion to its abundance in an ecosystem is called a keystone species. The keystone species may influence both the species richness of communities and the flow of energy and materials through ecosystems. The son star Pisoster ochraceus, which lives in rocky intertidal ecosystems on the Pacific coast of North America, is also an example of a keystone species. Its preferred prey is the mussel Mytilus californianus. In the absence of sea stars, these mussels crowd out other competitors in a broad belt of the intertidal zone. By consuming mussels, sea star creates bare spaces that are taken over by a variety of other species.



A study at the University of Washington demonstrated the influence of Pisaster on species richness by removing sea stars from selected parts of the intertidal zone repeatedly over a period of five years. Two major changes occurred in the areas from which sea stars were removed. First, the lower edge of the mussel bed extended farther down into the intertidal zone, showing that sea stars are able to eliminate mussels completely where they are covered with water most of the time. Second, and more dramatically, 28 species of animals and algae disappeared from the sea star removal zone. Eventually only Mytilus, the dominant competitor occupied the entire substratum. Through its effect on competitive relationships, predation by pisaster largely determines which species live in these rocky intertidal ecosystems.







44. What is the crux of the passage?



(a) Sea star has a preferred prey.



(b) A preferred prey determines the survival of a keystone species.



(c) Keystone species ensures species diversity.



(d) Sea star is the only keystone species on the Pacific coast of North America.



Answer: C



-----------



45. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:



1. Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystems.



2. The survival of sea stars is generally determined by the abundance of mussels.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 only



(c) Both 1 and 2



(d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: D



-----------



46. Which of the following is/are implied by the passage?



1. Mussels are always hard competitors for sea stars.



2. Sea stars of the Pacific coast have reached the climax of their evolution.



3. Sea stars constitute an important component in the energy flow in intertidal ecosystem.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 and 2



(b) 2 only



(c) 1 and 3



(d) 3 only



Answer: D



-----------



47. Consider the following assumptions:



1. The food chains/food web in an ecosystem are influenced by keystone species.



2. The presence of keystone species is a specific characteristic of aquatic ecosystems.



3. If the keystone species is completely removed from an ecosystem, it will lead to the collapse of the ecosystem.



With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 and 3 only



(c) 1 and 3 only



(d) 1, 2 and 3



Answer: A



-----------



48. Consider the following argument: “In order to be a teacher one must graduate from college. All poets are poor. Some Mathematicians are poets. No college graduate is poor.”



Which one of the following is not a valid conclusion regarding the above argument?



(a) Some Mathematicians are not teachers.



(b) Some teachers are not Mathematicians.



(c) Teachers are not poor.



(d) Poets are not trachers



Answer: B



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49. A student on her first 3 tests received an average score of N points. If she exceeds her previous average score by 20 points on her fourth test, then what is the average score for the first 4 tests?



(a) N + 20



(b) N + 10



(c) N + 4



(d) N + 5



Answer: D



-----------



50. In a group of persons, 70% of the persons are male and 30% of the persons are married. If two-sevenths of the males are married, what fraction of the females is single?



(a) 2/7



(b) 1/3



(c) 3/7



(d) 2/3



Answer: D



-----------



51. The houses of A and B face each other on a road going north-south, A’s being on the western side. A comes out of his house, turns left, travels 5 km, turns right, travels 5 km to the front of D’s house. B does exactly the same and reaches the front of C’s house. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?



(a) C and D live on the same street.



(b) C’s house faces south.



(c) The house of C and D are less than 20 km apart.



(d) None of the above.



Answer: C



-----------



Directions for the following 5 (five) items:



Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passage only.



Passage



Now India’s children have a right to receive at least eight years of education, the gnawing question is whether it will remain on paper or become a reality. One hardly needs a reminder that this right is different from the others enshrined in the Constitution, that the beneficiary – a six year old child cannot demand it, nor can she or he fight a legal battle when the right is denied or violated. In all cases, it is the adult society which must act on behalf of the child. In another peculiarity, where a child’s right to education is denied, no compensation offered later can be adequate or relevant. This is so because childhood does not last. If a legal battle fought on behalf of a child is eventually won, it may be of little use to the boy or girl because the opportunity missed at school during childhood cannot serve the same purpose later in life. This may be painfully true for girls because our society permits them only a short childhood, if at all. The Right to Education (RTE) has become law at a point in India’s history when the ghastly practice of female infanticide has resurfaced in the form of foeticide. This is “symptomatic of a deeper turmoil” in society which is compounding the traditional obstacles to the education of girls. Tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls runs across our cultural diversity and the system of education has not been able to address it.







52. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:



1. When children are denied education, adult society does not act on behalf of them.



2. Right to Education as a law cannot be enforced in the country.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 only



(c) Both 1 and 2



(d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: D



-----------



53. According to the passage, what could be the traditional obstacles to the education of girls?.



1. Inability of parents to fight a legal battle when the Right to Education is denied to their children.



2. The traditional way of thinking about girls’ role in society.



3. The prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls



4. Improper system of education.



Select the correct answer from the codes given below:



a) 1 and 2 only



b) 2, 3 and 4 only



c) 1, 3 and 4 only



d) 1, 2, 3 and 4



Answer: B



-----------



54. On the basis of the passage, consider the following statements:



1. Right to Education is a legal right and not a fundamental right.



2. For realizing the goal of universal education, the education system in the country must be made identical to that developed of countries.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



a) 1 only



b) 2 only



c) Both 1 and 2



d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: A



-----------



55. Which one of the following statements conveys the key message of the passage?



a) India has declared that education is compulsory for its children.



b) Adult society is not keen on implementing the Right to Education.



c) The Right to Education, particularly of a girl child, needs to be safeguarded.



d) The system of education should address the issue of Right to Education.



Answer: C



-----------



56. Which one of the following statements conveys the inference of the passage?



a) The society has a tenacious prejudice against the intellectual potential of girls.



b) Adults cannot be relied upon to fight on behalf of children for their Right to Education.



c) The legal fight to get education for children is often protracted and prohibitive.



d) There is no sufficient substitute for education received in childhood



Answer: D



-----------



Read the following passage and answer the



3(three) items that follow:



A, B, C, D and E are members of the same family. There are two fathers, two sons, two wives, three males and two females. The teacher was the wife of a lawyer who was the son of a doctor. E is not a male, neither also a wife of a professional. C is the youngest person in the family and D is the eldest. B is a male.



57. How is D related to E?



a) Husband



b) Son



c) Father



d) Wife



Answer: A



-----------



58. Who are females in the group?



a) C and E



b) C and D



c) E and A



d) D and E



Answer: C



-----------



59. Whose wife is the teacher?



a) C



b) D



c) A



d) B



Answer: D



-----------



Read the following passage and answer the 3 (three) items that follow:



In a survey regarding a proposed measure to be introduced, 2878 persons took part of which 1652 were males. 1226 persons voted against the proposal of which 796 were males. 1425 persons voted for the proposal. 196 females were undecided.



60. How many females voted for the proposal?



a) 430



b) 600



c) 625



d) 640



Answer: B



-----------



61. How many males were undecided?



a) 31



b) 227



c) 426



d) 581



Answer: A



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62. How many females were not in favour of the proposal?



a) 430



b) 496



c) 586



d) 1226



Answer: A



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63. In a queue, Mr. X is fourteenth from the front and Mr. Y is seventeenth from the end, while Mr. Z is exactly in between Mr. X and Mr. Y. If Mr. X is ahead of Mr. Y and there are 48 persons in the queue, how many persons are there between Mr. X and Mr. Z?



a) 6



b) 7



c) 8



d) 9



Answer: C



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Directions for the following 9 (nine) items:



The following nine items (Questions 64 to 72) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.



Passage-I



He walked several miles that day but could not get anything to eat or drink except some dry bread and some water, which he got from cottagers and farmers. As night fell, he slept under a haystack lying in a meadow. He felt frightened at first, for the wind blew awfully over the empty fields. He felt cold and hungry, and was feeling lonelier than he had ever felt before. He, however, soon fell asleep, being much tried with his long walk. When he got up next day, he was feeling terribly hungry so he purchased a loaf of bread with a few coins that he had.







64. When the night fell, he slept



(a) In the open field



(b) Under a pile of dry grass



(c) In a farmer’s cottage



(d) Under a tree



Answer: B



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65. He soon fell asleep because



(a) He was exhausted



(b) He was all alone



(c) He had not slept for days



(d) He was very frightened



Answer: A



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66. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:



1. He was walking through the countryside.



2. The cottagers and farmers gave him enough food so that he could sleep at night without feeling hungry.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 only



(c) Both 1 and 2



(d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: A



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Passage-II



I opened the bag and packed the boots in; and then, just as I was going to close it, a horrible idea occurred to me. Had I packed my toothbrush? I don’t know how it is, but I never do know whether I’ve packed my toothbrush.



My toothbrush is a thing that haunts me when I’m travelling, and makes my life a misery. I dream that I haven’t packed it, and wake up in a cold perspiration, get out of bed and hunt for it. And, in the morning, I pack it before I have used it, and it is always the last thing I turn out of the bag; and then I repack and forget it, and have to rush upstairs for it at the last moment and carry it to the railway station, wrapped up in my pocket-handkerchief.







67. When he was going to close the bag, the idea that occurred to him was



(a) Unpleasant



(b) Sad



(c) Fantastic



(d) Amusing



Answer: A



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68. What makes his life miserable whenever he undertakes travelling?



(a) Going to railway station



(b) Forgetting the toothbrush



(c) Packing his bag



(d) Bad dreams



Answer: B



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69. His toothbrush is finally



(a) In his bag



(b) In his bed



(c) In his handkerchief



(d) Lost



Answer: C



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Passage – III



In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three month old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal and it may have the meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the litter forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I’ve only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.



70. Female polar bears given birth during



(a) Spring



(b) Summer



(c) Autumn



(d) Winter



Answer: D



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71. Mother bear



(a) Takes sides over cubs



(b) Let the cubs fend for themselves



(c) Feeds only their favourites



(d) Sees that all cubs get an equal share



Answer: B



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72. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made



1. Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non-availability of prey



2. Polar bears always give birth to triplets



Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?



(a) 1 only



(b) 2 only



(c) Both 1 and 2



(d) Neither 1 nor 2



Answer: D



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Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:



Given below are eight items. Each item describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation. Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these eight items.



73. You have been asked to give an explanation for not attending an important official meeting. Your immediate boss who has not informed you about meeting is now putting pressure on you not to place an allegation against him/her. You would



(a) Send a written reply explaining the fact



(b) Seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation



(c) Admit your fault to save the situation



(d) Put the responsibility on the coordinator of the meeting for not informing



Answer: A



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74. A local thug (bad element) has started illegal construction on your vacant plot. He has refused your request to vacate and threatened you of dire consequences in case you do not sell the property at a cheap price to him. You would



(a) Sell the property at a cheap price to him



(b) Go to the police for necessary action



(c) Ask for help from your neighbours



(d) Negotiate with the goon to get a higher price.



Answer: B



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75. You have to accomplish a very important task for your Headquarters within the next two days. Suddenly you meet with an accident. Your office insists that you complete the task. You would.



(a) Ask for an extension of deadline



(b) Inform Headquarters of your inability to finish on time



(c) Suggest alternate person to Headquarters who may do the needful



(d) Stay away till you recover



Answer: A



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76. You are an officer-in-charge for providing basic medical facilities to the survivors of an earthquake affected area. Despite your best possible effort, people put allegations against you for making money out of the funds given for relief. You would



(a) Let an enquiry be set up to look into the matter



(b) Ask your senior to appoint some other person in your place



(c) Not pay attention to allegations



(d) Stop under taking any initiative till the matter is resolved.



Answer: A



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77. You have been made responsible to hire boats at a short notice to be used for an area under flood. On seeing the price mentioned by the boat owners you found that the lowest price was approximately there times more than the approved rate of the government. You would



(a) Reject the proposal and call for a fresh price



(b) Accept the lowest price



(c) Refer the matter to the government and wait



(d) Threaten the boat owners about a possible cancellation of the licence



Answer: D



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78. Your are the officer-in-charge of a village administering distribution of vaccine in an isolated epidemic hit village, and you are left with only one vaccine. There is a requirement of that vaccine from the Gram pradhan and also a poor villager. You are being pressurized by the Gram pradhan to issue the vaccine to him. You would



(a) Initiate the procedure to expedite the next supply without issuing the vaccine to either



(b) Arrange vaccine for the poor villager from the distributor of another area.



(c) Ask both to approach a doctor and get an input about the urgency.



(d) Arrange vaccine for the Gram Pradhan from the distributor of another area.



Answer: D



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79. You have taken up a project to create night shelters for homeless people during the winter season. Within a week of establishing the shelters, you have received complaints from the residents of the area about the increase in theft cases with a demand to remove the shelters. You would



(a) Ask them to lodge a written complaint in the police station



(b) Assure resident s of an enquiry into the matter



(c) Ask residents to consider the humanitarian effort made



(d) Continue with the project and ignore their complaint



Answer: A



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80. You, as an administrative authority, have been approached, by the daughter-in-law of an influential person regarding harassment by her in-laws on account of insufficient dowry. Her parents are not able to approach you because of social pressures. You would



(a) Call the in-laws for an explanation



(b) Counsel the lady to adjust, given such a circumstance



(c) Take action after her parents approach you



(d) Ask her to lodge a complaint with the police



Answer: D



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